In light of all the recent news on zombie foreclosures (where the banks have not completed the foreclosure process on DIL and/or the foreclosure sale) can a homeowner now complete a short sale? These homeowners are still on title and responsible for taxes because the bank has not completed the process. Has anyone done this?
If a foreclosure process is not completed, sure, as long as the bank is cooperative. Not sure what you meant by foreclosure process on DIL. There's no foreclosure with a DIL, just the recording of the executed deed.
I think that was a grammatical error. I intended to say that sometimes the bank has not completed the foreclosure process after a notice of sale and have not recorded the deed on the DIL. So there are actually two different scenarios I was asking about?