In light of all the recent news on zombie foreclosures (where the banks have not completed the foreclosure process on DIL and/or the foreclosure sale) can a homeowner now complete a short sale?   These homeowners are still on title and responsible for taxes because the bank has not completed the process.  Has anyone done this?

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If a foreclosure process is not completed, sure, as long as the bank is cooperative.  Not sure what you meant by foreclosure process on DIL.  There's no foreclosure with a DIL, just the recording of the executed deed.

Thanks Wayne,

I think that was a grammatical error.  I intended to say that sometimes the bank has not completed the foreclosure process after a notice of sale and have not recorded the deed on the DIL.  So there are actually two different scenarios I was asking about?  

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